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- Kunle Emmanuel
- Posts: 2272
- Joined: Mon Jan 09, 2012 5:02 pm
- Location: Lagos
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Cerebral edema
c. Acute MI management
d. Chest pain management
2. Endotracheal intubation does all the following except:
a. Reduce the risk of aspiration
b. Should be accomplished in 30 seconds or less
c. Permits tracheal suctioning
d. Provides a route for administration of atropine, lidocaine, and valium
3. Management of unstable patients may necessitate the use of electrical therapy. Identify the correct initial and subsequent energy settings for the management of electrical therapy for unstable SVT patients.
a. 100, 200, 300, 360 joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic energy
b. 200, 200, 300, 360 joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic energy
c. 150, 300, 360 joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic energy
d. 200, 300, 360 joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic energy
4. Which of the following factors are least likely to reduce transthoracic resistance for defibrillation?
a. Administration of epinephrine before the defibrillation attempts
b. Application of firm paddle pressure or use of hands-free defibrillation pads
c. Use of a conduction gel
5. Which one of the following rhythms is seen most commonly in the first few minutes of cardiac arrest?
b. Complete heart block
d. Ventricular fibrillation
6. The rate of sinus tachycardia is:
a. Greater than 100 beats/minute up to when the "P" waves are no longer visible
b. 100-160 beats/minute
c. 60-100 beats/minute
d. Less than 60 beats/minute
7. What is the initial dose of atropine in an unstable bradycardia?
8. Dopamine infusions at 10-15mcg/kg/min will likely produce:
a. Peripheral vasoconstriction and marked tachycardia
b. Systemic vasoconstriction and increased renal perfusion
c. Renal blood vessel dilation and peripheral vasoconstriction
d. Beta receptor stimulating effects resulting in increased cardiac output
9. You have been called to a patient in cardiac arrest. You find a 43 year old male who is unresponsive, pulseless and not breathing. CPR is being properly performed. As the crash cart arrives you quick-look and see ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following will you perform next?
a. Precordial thump, CPR, ET tube, Epi, and defibrillate
b. CPR, ET tube, IV, Epi, and defibrillate
c. Defibrillate with 360 joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic energy
d. CPR, ET tube, IV, lidocaine, and defibrillate
10. 62 year old male watching TV when he felt a "fluttering" chest. He denies chest pain and SOB. He is A&Ox4, but anxious. BP 150/84, Resp 16, HR 180. EKG is a wide complex. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Which of the following is least likely to be indicated?
a. Synchronized cardioversion
b. Start oxygen therapy
c. Administer lidocaine
d. Administer verapamil
c. 100 plus
22. When hyperventilating a patient before an intubation attempt the rate should be?
a. 12 per minute
b. 24 per minute
c. 30 per minute
d. 40 per minute
23. What is the dose of magnesium for a ventricular tachycardic rhythm?
24. What is the recommended does of atropine in asystole?
25. What is the dose of the second round of adenosine?
a. 300mg over 10 minutes
b. 150mg over 2 minutes
c. 3mg/kg every 20 minutes
d. 150mg over 10 minutes
42. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine IV?
43. What acronym is used to remember the medications to consider giving all ASC / MI patients?
44. Place the following priority goals in order when treating a cardiac patient?
a. Rhythm, BP, rate
b. Rate, rhythm, BP
c. BP, rate, rhythm
d. Rate, BP, rhythm
45. When looking at a 12-lead, what groupings would indicate an inferior MI?
a. Lead I, aVL, V5, V6
b. Lead V1, V2, V3, V4
c. Lead II, III, aVF
d. Lead II, V5, V6
46. List the preferred first line recommended ventricular drugs in the ventricular fibrillation algorithm.
47. What is the depth of compressions when performing CPR?
a. at least 2 inches
b. 1 1/2 to 2 inches
c. 2 to 2 1/2 inches
d. 1/2 to 1 inch
48. What is the most common cause of PEA?
d. Cardiac tamponade
49. Under current guidelines you may cardiovert stable ventricular tachycardia immediately.
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